training officer's selection test

Date - 2024-10-07 ( Shift - 1 )

( www.clickforexam.com )

(1) 'Pithampur' is fall under which of the following district of Madhya Pradesh state?

(a) Dhar
(b) Khargone
(c) Indore
(d) Bhopal
(Ans) Dhar

(2) National Small Industry Day in India is celebrated every year on?

(a) 25 August
(b) 23 August
(c) 30 August
(d) 31 अगस्त
(Ans) 30 August

(3) Who out of the following won Bronze medal in the men’s shot put F57 class at Paris Paralympics 2024?

(a) Manu
(b) Ravi Rongali
(c) Mohd. Yasser
(d) Hokato Hotozhe Sema
(Ans) Hokato Hotozhe Sema

(4) In March 2024, who out of the following has been appointed as the new President of Federation of Indian Export Organization?

(a) Rajeev Sinha
(b) Jai Agnihotri
(c) Ashwini Kumar
(d) Vinay Kumar
(Ans) Ashwini Kumar

(5) Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated SEMICON India 2024 in which of the following state in September 2024?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(Ans) Uttar Pradesh

(6) The ratio of nominal to real Gross Domestic Product is known as ______.

(a) Base year
(b) GDP deflator
(c) Constant Prices
(d) Base Prices
(Ans) GDP deflator

(7) Why is porcelain suitable for a toilet's building material?

(a) Porcelain is a hard material
(b) Porcelain is a non-porous material
(c) Porcelain is a hard, non-porous material
(d) Porcelain is a soft material
(Ans) Porcelain is a hard, non-porous material

(8) Which one of the following is an insulator?

(a) Copper
(b) Wood
(c) Mercury
(d) Aluminum
(Ans) Wood

(9) A nanosecond is ______ of a second.

(a) One millionth
(b) One billionth
(c) One hundredth
(d) One tenth
(Ans) One billionth

(10) What does BCD stand for in computer terminology?

(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Basic Coded Decimal
(c) Binary Coded Data
(d) Basic Coded Data
(Ans) Binary Coded Decimal

(11) What does "GUI" stand for in computer terminology?

(a) Green Unit Interface
(b) Graphical User Interface
(c) Graphical Unit Interface
(d) Graphics Utility Interface
(Ans) Graphical User Interface

(12) What is the fullform of "HTML" in the context of web development?

(a) Hypertext Markup Language
(b) High-Tech Multimedia Language
(c) Hyperlink Textual Markup Language
(d) Home Transfer Markup Language
(Ans) Hypertext Markup Language

(13) Which of the following storage device is commonly used to transfer files between computers?

(a) CD
(b) RAM
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
(Ans) CD

(14) What does 'GIF' stand for in terms of computer terminology?

(a) Graphics Interchange Format
(b) Graphical Interchange Format
(c) Graphics Integrated Format
(d) Graphical Integrated Format
(Ans) Graphics Interchange Format

(15) What type of device is a microphone?

(a) Input Device
(b) Output Device
(c) Storage Device /
(d) Processing Device
(Ans) Input Device

(16) In a certain code, EMTWX is coded as GOVYZ, then how is PYSCI coded in the same way?

(a) RAUEK
(b) CYSIP
(c) RDUEK
(d) CISPY
(Ans) RAUEK

(17) In each of the four pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term are a rearranged/ transformed form of the letters in the first term in aparticular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done in the same way? (A) SUMK -QMKC (B) RJTQ - PBRI (C) HJCA - RJTQ (D) JKJK- RTYT

(a) A and D
(b) C and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and B
(Ans) A and B

(18) Find the missing number in the given analogy: 12 : 143 :: 100 : ?

(a) 9789
(b) 1119
(c) 1009
(d) 9999
(Ans) 9999

(19) Find the missing term in the following series.MNPQ, RISL, WDVG, BYYB, ?

(a) PSTV
(b) AUWX
(c) ATDM
(d) GTBW
(Ans) GTBW

(20) Find the next term of the given series BY, DW,?, HS, JQ

(a) FT
(b) FU
(c) GU
(d) EU
(Ans) FU

(21) Ratio of age of Monu and Sonu is 3 : 8. Difference of their ages be 35 years. Find age of Monu.

(a) 21 years
(b) 56 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 66 years
(Ans) 21 years

(22) If the price of a BMW car increases by 10%. and if it's new price becomes 755,370 then what will be its old price?

(a) 580,000
(b) 600,000
(c) 686,700
(d) 650,000
(Ans) 686,700

(23) A sum become Rs. 2645 in 2 years at the rate of 15% per annum of compound interest. What will be the simple interest on same amount at 10% per annum in 3 years?

(a) Rs. 645
(b) Rs. 650
(c) Rs. 629
(d) Rs. 600
(Ans) Rs. 600

(24) A work was assigned to me, my sister and my brother. I did 10% of the work, my sister did 20% of the remaining work and then my brother did 25% of the still remaining. What percentage of the work is yet to be completed?

(a) 45%
(b) 54%
(c) 48%
(d) 55%
(Ans) 55%

(25) How is heat typically generated in mechanical welding methods?

(a) By chemical reactions
(b) By impact, friction, or deformation of the metal
(c) Through a laser beam
(d) By passing an electric current through the workpiece
(Ans) By impact, friction, or deformation of the metal

(26) Why can't flames be used in certain welding processes, such as in a vacuum?

(a) Flames require an electric current
(b) Flames cannot generate sufficient heat in a vacuum
(c) Flames require atmospheric gases to sustain combustion
(d) Flames only work with specific materials
(Ans) Flames require atmospheric gases to sustain combustion

(27) How are many welding processes typically named?

(a) According to the type of filler material used
(b) Based on the composition of the materials used
(c) Based on the heat source or shielding method used
(d) According to the thickness of the materials being welded
(Ans) Based on the heat source or shielding method used

(28) What carries the arc current in a welding arc?

(a) Ionized gas called plasma
(b) Molten metal
(c) Electromagnetic waves
(d) Neutral gaseous atoms
(Ans) Ionized gas called plasma

(29) In a welding arc, where do electrons flow from and to?

(a) From the anode to the cathode
(b) From the cathode to the anode
(c) From the plasma to the slag
(d) From the metal to the electrode
(Ans) From the cathode to the anode

(30) What is the typical temperature range of a welding arc?

(a) 500 to 2,000 K
(b) 3,000 to 10,000 K
(c) 5,000 to 30,000 K
(d) 10,000 to 50,000 K
(Ans) 5,000 to 30,000 K

(31) What causes heat generation at the cathode in a welding arc?

(a) Radiation from the plasma
(b) Collisions among atoms
(c) Ionic bombardment
(d) Melting of the electrode
(Ans) Ionic bombardment

(32) What factors can influence the distribution of heat between the cathode and anode in a welding arc?

(a) The speed of the welding process
(b) The materials of the electrode and base metal, and the nature of the plasma
(c) The thickness of the metal being welded
(d) The type of shielding gas used
(Ans) The materials of the electrode and base metal, and the nature of the plasma

(33) In a DC welding arc, why does the heat generated at the cathode and anode regions differ?

(a) Due to different electrode compositions and plasma properties
(b) Because the plasma temperature is lower than at the cathode
(c) Because electrons are emitted only from the anode
(d) Due to equal energy transfer across the plasma
(Ans) Due to different electrode compositions and plasma properties

(34) What safety precaution is suggested for Oxy-Acetylene Welding (OAW) cylinders?

(a) Secure in a horizontal position
(b) Store in tight spaces
(c) Chain to a stationary support in an upright position
(d) Lay them down flat when not in use
(Ans) Chain to a stationary support in an upright position

(35) What should be done to avoid breathing welding fumes while working indoors?

(a) Wear a mask and goggles
(b) Use a welding blanket
(c) Ventilate the area or use an extractor
(d) Increase the welding temperature
(Ans) Ventilate the area or use an extractor

(36) Which welding process is specifically known for its deep penetrating ability into metals and for creating a fusion zone in a narrow area?

(a) Submerged Arc Welding (SAW)
(b) Plasma Arc Welding
(c) TIG Welding
(d) Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW)
(Ans) Plasma Arc Welding

(37) What is the primary use of Induction Welding?

(a) Joining thin sheet metals
(b) Welding parts that are heated by electrical induction coils
(c) Joining irregularly shaped rods
(d) Welding using arc flashes
(Ans) Welding parts that are heated by electrical induction coils

(38) Which welding method is particularly suitable for joining thick steel plates in one pass?

(a) Electro Slag Welding
(b) Submerged Arc Welding
(c) TIG Welding
(d) Friction Welding
(Ans) Electro Slag Welding

(39) What distinguishes Oxy-Other Fuel Gases Welding from Oxy-Acetylene Welding?

(a) Lower flame temperature in Oxy-Other Fuel Gases Welding
(b) Higher pressure required for welding
(c) Faster welding speed
(d) Use of an electric arc instead of a flame
(Ans) Lower flame temperature in Oxy-Other Fuel Gases Welding

(40) What is a major advantage of brazing as compared to fusion welding?

(a) Higher temperatures required
(b) Greater distortion of base metals
(c) Lower skill requirement
(d) More complicated process
(Ans) Lower skill requirement

(41) In the context of seaming machines, what is the function of the pressure roller?

(a) To heat the joint area
(b) To clamp the sheets together
(c) To close or lock the grooved seam
(d) To cut the sheets to size
(Ans) To close or lock the grooved seam

(42) What is meant by "open circuit voltage" in the context of arc welding?

(a) The voltage measured while welding is in progress
(b) The voltage present when no arc is struck between the electrode and the workpiece
(c) The maximum voltage that can be applied to the welding machine
(d) The voltage needed to create the arc
(Ans) The voltage present when no arc is struck between the electrode and the workpiece

(43) Which fuel gas is most commonly used for underwater gas cutting of steel?

(a) Acetylene
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Coal gas
(d) Liquid petroleum gas (LPG)
(Ans) Hydrogen

(44) Which of the following flame combinations is commonly used for soldering and brazing but produces the lowest temperature?

(a) Oxy-acetylene flame
(b) Oxy-hydrogen flame
(c) Air-acetylene flame
(d) Oxy-coal gas flame
(Ans) Air-acetylene flame

(45) Which gas flame combination is primarily used for heating and gas cutting of steel but contains moisture and carbon in its flame?

(a) Oxy-acetylene flame
(b) Oxy-hydrogen flame
(c) Oxy-liquid petroleum gas (LPG) flame
(d) Oxy-coal gas flame
(Ans) Oxy-liquid petroleum gas (LPG) flame

(46) Which type of oxy-acetylene flame is most suitable for welding brass, and why?

(a) Neutral flame, because it maintains the original chemical composition of the metal
(b) Carburizing flame, because it adds carbon to prevent oxidation of brass
(c) Oxidizing flame, because it prevents the evaporation of zinc and tin in brass
(d) Neutral flame, because it provides a high temperature without altering the composition
(Ans) Oxidizing flame, because it prevents the evaporation of zinc and tin in brass

(47) Which flame is recommended for hard-facing applications like stellating, and what effect does it have?

(a) Neutral flame, as it prevents oxidation of the base metal
(b) Oxidizing flame, as it ensures a clean weld without contamination
(c) Carburizing flame, as it introduces carbon, which is useful for hard-facing processes
(d) Neutral flame, as it balances the acetylene and oxygen ratio
(Ans) Carburizing flame, as it introduces carbon, which is useful for hard-facing processes

(48) Why is a slightly carburizing flame recommended for welding pure aluminium, and what might happen if a neutral flame is used instead?

(a) To prevent oxidation, as aluminium oxidizes easily at high temperatures
(b) To ensure deep penetration, as aluminium requires extra heat for welding
(c) To increase the melting point of aluminium, as a neutral flame would melt it too quickly
(d) To introduce carbon, which reacts beneficially with aluminium during welding
(Ans) To prevent oxidation, as aluminium oxidizes easily at high temperatures

(49) What is the primary purpose of using standard welding symbols in design drawings?

(a) To indicate the color of the weld
(b) To provide information on the type, size, and location of weldments
(c) To suggest the welding equipment to be used
(d) To denote the manufacturer of the welding materials
(Ans) To provide information on the type, size, and location of weldments

(50) In the context of welding symbols, what role do supplementary symbols play?

(a) They indicate the strength of the weld
(b) They characterize the shape of the weld's external surface
(c) They specify the type of filler material
(d) They denote the temperature required for welding
(Ans) They characterize the shape of the weld's external surface

(51) Which of the following elements is NOT part of a complete welding symbol?

(a) Reference line
(b) Arrow
(c) Material thickness
(d) Tail
(Ans) Material thickness

(52) What information is typically conveyed by the tail of a welding symbol?

(a) The type of weld only
(b) Specifications, welding process, or additional details
(c) The angle of the groove weld
(d) The colour of the weld
(Ans) Specifications, welding process, or additional details

(53) What are the two primary types of joints found in steel structures?

(a) Bolted joints and glued joints
(b) Riveted joints and bolted joints
(c) Riveted joints and welded joints
(d) Glued joints and welded joints
(Ans) Riveted joints and welded joints

(54) What is the nominal diameter of a rivet?

(a) The diameter of the rivet hole after driving
(b) The diameter of the shank before driving
(c) The diameter of the rivet head
(d) The width of the rivet before forging
(Ans) The diameter of the shank before driving

(55) Which of the following forces produces direct tension or compression in the rivet shank?

(a) Direct shear
(b) Eccentric shear
(c) Direct tension/compression
(d) Bending moment
(Ans) Direct tension/compression

(56) What type of rivet joint failure occurs when the plate tears off due to weaker plate strength compared to the rivet?

(a) Shearing of rivets
(b) Tearing of plates
(c) Bearing failure
(d) Tensile failure of rivets
(Ans) Tearing of plates

(57) Which testing method is used to identify porosity and internal defects using X-rays?

(a) Bend test
(b) Radiographic test
(c) Magnetic particle test
(d) Charpy test
(Ans) Radiographic test

(58) Which type of test uses magnetic particles to reveal defects in ferromagnetic materials?

(a) X-ray test
(b) Bend test
(c) Magnetic particle testing
(d) Charpy test
(Ans) Magnetic particle testing

(59) Which welding test is most likely to be used in high-pressure pipeline industries to ensure the safety of the welds?

(a) X-ray testing
(b) Bend test
(c) Liquid penetrant testing
(d) Tensile test
(Ans) X-ray testing

(60) Which type of test uses acid to reveal defects in the weld?

(a) Acid etch test
(b) Guided bend test
(c) Radiographic test
(d) Charpy test
(Ans) Acid etch test

(61) What is the minimum dimension of a visible crack allowed in the guided bend test?

(a) 2.1 mm
(b) 3.2 mm
(c) 5.4 mm
(d) 6.5 mm
(Ans) 3.2 mm

(62) What does the acid etch test specifically reveal between the base and weld metals?

(a) The strength of the weld
(b) The boundary between base and weld metals
(c) The temperature of the weld
(d) The colour of the metal
(Ans) The boundary between base and weld metals

(63) What is indicated by the accumulation of magnetic particles on the surface during the Magnetic Particle Test?

(a) The weld is visually appealing
(b) The presence of defects or discontinuities
(c) The material has high electrical conductivity
(d) The weld has high tensile strength
(Ans) The presence of defects or discontinuities

(64) What is the advantage of performing a hydrostatic test using oil instead of water?

(a) Oil is less expensive than water
(b) Oil allows for easier visual identification of leaks
(c) Oil does not cause rust in steel vessels
(d) Oil can exert higher pressure than water
(Ans) Oil allows for easier visual identification of leaks

(65) What is the primary use of the Gamma-Ray Test?

(a) To determine the colour of the weld
(b) To check the strength of the weld
(c) To inspect the internal defects in the weld
(d) To measure the thickness of the weld
(Ans) To inspect the internal defects in the weld

(66) Which type of materials is the Fluorescent Penetrant Dye Test primarily used for?

(a) Ferromagnetic materials
(b) Non-magnetic materials like magnesium and aluminium
(c) Plastic materials
(d) Steel alloys only
(Ans) Non-magnetic materials like magnesium and aluminium

(67) What does the Hardness Test measure?

(a) The density of the material
(b) The resistance to indentation and wear
(c) The thermal conductivity of the metal
(d) The tensile strength of the weld
(Ans) The resistance to indentation and wear

(68) Which testing machine applies a load against a hard steel ball to determine hardness?

(a) Rockwell hardness tester
(b) Vickers hardness tester
(c) Brinell hardness tester
(d) Mohs hardness tester
(Ans) Brinell hardness tester

(69) What is the typical flow rate range for shielding gas during GMAW welding?

(a) 5 to 10 cubic feet per hour
(b) 10 to 20 cubic feet per hour
(c) 20 to 50 cubic feet per hour
(d) 50 to 100 cubic feet per hour
(Ans) 20 to 50 cubic feet per hour

(70) What type of electrode is used in GTAW or TIG welding?

(a) Consumable electrode
(b) Non-consumable tungsten electrode
(c) Carbon electrode
(d) Copper electrode
(Ans) Non-consumable tungsten electrode

(71) Which one of the following types of welding does not involve melting of metals for fusing together?

(a) Brazing
(b) Soldering
(c) Resistance
(d) Fusion
(Ans) Resistance

(72) What type of resistance welding process is most commonly used in the automobile industry?

(a) Spot welding
(b) Continuous arc welding
(c) Fusion welding
(d) Seam welding
(Ans) Spot welding

(73) What is the general rule for distance between spots for spot welding technique?

(a) Applying high pressure to aid spot welding
(b) Applying low pressure to aid spot welding
(c) >16t distance between the welds
(d) =16t distance between the welds
(Ans) =16t distance between the welds

(74) Calculate the weld spacing required for a 1.5mm mild thick weld plate?

(a) 60 mm
(b) 78 mm
(c) 72 mm
(d) 68 mm
(Ans) 72 mm

(75) Calculate the electrode diameter required for a 1.5mm mild thick steel plate?

(a) 6.0 mm
(b) 6.1 mm
(c) 6.2 mm
(d) 6.8 mm
(Ans) 6.1 mm

(76) What type of welding is most suitable for making cans and cases where water or air tightness is more important than mechanical strength?

(a) Spot welding
(b) Butt welding
(c) Seam welding
(d) Gas welding
(Ans) Spot welding

(77) What is cast iron primarily made of?

(a) Carbon, silicon, and copper
(b) Phosphorus, sulphur, silicon, iron, manganese and carbon
(c) Nickel, copper, and aluminium
(d) Steel and zinc
(Ans) Phosphorus, sulphur, silicon, iron, manganese and carbon

(78) Which welding method does NOT require preheating in the cast iron welding process?

(a) Cold welding
(b) Hot welding
(c) Semi-hot welding
(d) None of the given options
(Ans) Cold welding

(79) In cast iron welding, what effect does hammering (peening) have on the welded surface?

(a) It hardens the weld metal to prevent cracks
(b) It increases the cooling speed of the weld
(c) It expands the surface layer laterally, creating beneficial compressive stresses
(d) It makes the weld zone porous
(Ans) It expands the surface layer laterally, creating beneficial compressive stresses

(80) What material is generally used to make a drawing board?

(a) Steel
(b) Plastic
(c) Soft wood
(d) Aluminium
(Ans) Soft wood

(81) Which instrument is used to transfer measurements from a scale to the drawing?

(a) Compass
(b) Divider
(c) Set-square
(d) T-square
(Ans) Set-square

(82) What should be the root gap when preparing for tack welding?

(a) 1 mm
(b) 2 mm
(c) 2.5 mm
(d) 3.5 mm
(Ans) 2.5 mm

(83) Why is peening the welded bead important after the second run?

(a) To improve the weld surface
(b) To remove the scale on the bead
(c) To relieve internal stresses
(d) To prepare for the next weld pass
(Ans) To relieve internal stresses

(84) What is the importance of using cast iron nickel-based electrodes in welding?

(a) To reduce electrode consumption
(b) To avoid cracks in the cast iron joint
(c) To ensure fast welding speed
(d) To reduce weld porosity
(Ans) To avoid cracks in the cast iron joint

(85) Which of the following is not a material required for freehand sketching?

(a) A4 size sheet
(b) B A ruler
(c) HB pencil
(d) Good quality eraser
(Ans) B A ruler

(86) What type of dimensioning system places dimensional values parallel to their dimension lines?

(a) Unidirectional
(b) Aligned
(c) Chain dimensioning
(d) Combined dimensioning
(Ans) Aligned

(87) Which type of dimension provides information but is not used for production or inspection?

(a) Functional dimension
(b) Reference dimension
(c) Non-functional dimension
(d) Size dimension
(Ans) Reference dimension

(88) In the unidirectional system, where are dimensional values positioned?

(a) Perpendicular to the dimension lines
(b) In any location on the drawing
(c) Parallel to the feature
(d) Readable from the bottom of the drawing sheet
(Ans) Readable from the bottom of the drawing sheet

(89) Which system is commonly used for components produced on a jig boring machine?

(a) Chain dimensioning
(b) Dimensioning by coordinates
(c) Parallel dimensioning
(d) Combined dimensioning
(Ans) Dimensioning by coordinates

(90) What type of welding is referred to as fusion welding where heat is obtained by the combustion of a fuel gas?

(a) Arc welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Laser welding
(d) Resistance welding
(Ans) Gas welding

(91) In which type of flame are three distinct zones visible, including an intermediate whitish cone, and for what purpose is it used?

(a) Carburizing flame, used for minimizing oxidation
(b) Neutral flame, used for most metals
(c) Oxidizing flame, used for brass welding
(d) Preheating flame, used for soldering
(Ans) Carburizing flame, used for minimizing oxidation

(92) In arc welding, what generates the heat used for the welding process?

(a) Friction between metals
(b) Electric arc between the workpiece and electrode
(c) Chemical reactions
(d) Heat from a gas flame
(Ans) Electric arc between the workpiece and electrode

(93) Which of the following is a non-consumable electrode?

(a) Steel electrode
(b) Tungsten electrode
(c) Aluminium electrode
(d) Copper electrode
(Ans) Tungsten electrode

(94) What is the main purpose of the coating on a consumable electrode in arc welding?

(a) To increase the temperature of the arc
(b) To protect the weld pool from atmospheric contamination
(c) To improve the appearance of the weld
(d) To enhance the colour of the flame
(Ans) To protect the weld pool from atmospheric contamination

(95) In which of the following year was the Ladli Laxmi Yojana started by the Government of Madhya Pradesh?

(a) 2003
(b) 2007
(c) 2009
(d) 2011
(Ans) 2007

(96) Second Indo-Russian Commission meeting on Emergency Management was held in which of the following city in August 2024?

(a) Saint Petersburg
(b) Irkutsk
(c) New Delhi
(d) Moscow
(Ans) Moscow

(97) Who out of the following won the Gold medal in men's javelin throw F41 at Paris Paralympics 2024?

(a) Navdeep Sing
(b) Sandeep
(c) Sumit Antil
(d) Yogesh Kathuniya
(Ans) Navdeep Sing

(98) Who out of the following has been nominated for the prestigious Saraswati Samman 2023?

(a) Jhumpa Lahiri
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Prabha Verma
(d) Khushwant Singh
(Ans) Prabha Verma

(99) The 20th edition of the Joint Military Exercise, Yudh Abhyas 2024, commenced at, Rajasthan. It is a Military Exercise between India and which of the following country?

(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) United Arab Emirates
(d) United States America
(Ans) United States America

(100) The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the _____.

(a) Himachal
(b) Shiwaliks
(c) Duns
(d) Himadri
(Ans) Shiwaliks

(101) Which of the following procedures will give you water free from all impurities?

(a) Chlorine tablets
(b) Boiling
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration
(Ans) Distillation

(102) We are able to walk on earth without slipping because of–

(a) Gravitational force
(b) Frictional force
(c) Viscous force
(d) Centrifugal force
(Ans) Frictional force

(103) A prism splits a beam of _________ into seven colours.

(a) red light
(b) blue light
(c) sunlight
(d) green light
(Ans) sunlight

(104) What does CAD stand for in computer terminology?

(a) Computer Advanced Design
(b) Computer Aided Design
(c) Computer Aided Development
(d) Computer Automated Design
(Ans) Computer Aided Design

(105) Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to paste content in Microsoft Word?

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + V
(c) Ctrl + X
(d) Ctrl + P
(Ans) Ctrl + V

(106) What is the function of the "Ctrl + C" keyboard shortcut in MS Office?

(a) Cut
(b) Copy
(c) Paste
(d) Select all
(Ans) Copy

(107) Which of the following storage device uses optical technology to read and write data?

(a) Hard Disk
(b) CD
(c) RAM
(d) None of the given options
(Ans) None of the given options

(108) What does the term "HTTP" stand for in the context of internet communication?

(a) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(b) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(c) High Tech Transfer Protocol
(d) Hyperlink Transfer Protocol
(Ans) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

(109) Which of the following peripheral device is used to input text into a computer?

(a) CPU
(b) Monitor
(c) Keyboard
(d) Printer
(Ans) Keyboard

(110) In a certain code, FOLK is coded as OKFL, then how is DONY coded in the same way?

(a) ONYD
(b) NODY
(c) ONDY
(d) ONDY
(Ans) ONDY

(111) In each of the four pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term are a rearranged/ transformed form of the letters in the first term in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done in the same way? (A) FTPKORJC - FRPKBRJC (B) DISTANCE - FBOZURJC (C) DISCLOSE - FRPKDRJC(D) FRPKDRJC - FRPKORJC

(a) A and D
(b) C and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and B
(Ans) B and C

(112) Find the missing term in the following series.SKC, VND, YQE, ?

(a) BTF
(b) MPQ
(c) TUW
(d) HJJ
(Ans) BTF

(113) Find the next term of the given series ZZYZYXZYXWZYXWVZYXWVUZYXWVU?

(a) T
(b) U
(c) W
(d) S
(Ans) T

(114) Age of father is six times of his son. 4 years later father’s age will be four times of his son’s age. Their age are:

(a) 4 and 24
(b) 5 and 30
(c) 6 and 36
(d) 7 and 42
(Ans) 6 and 36

(115) If the price of a flat increased by 15% annually and the present price of the flat is Rs 6,00,000. What will be its price (in rupees) after 2 years?

(a) 6,90,000
(b) 7,35,000
(c) 7,35,000
(d) 7,50,000
(Ans) 7,50,000

(116) A invested an amount of x rupees in a bank for 2 year which gave 5% interest in 1st year and 6% in 2nd year. The amount received after 2 years is Rs 24,486. What is the value of x?

(a) 23000
(b) 22500
(c) 22000
(d) 21500
(Ans) 22000

(117) A number when divided by 114 leaves remainder 39. When the same number is divided by 19, what shall be the remainder?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(Ans) 1

(118) What is the primary similarity between plasmas and oxyfuel gas flames in thermochemical processes?

(a) Both use exothermic chemical reactions
(b) Both methods rely on electric currents
(c) Both transfer heat to the workpiece in the same way
(d) Both require a non-transferred arc
(Ans) Both transfer heat to the workpiece in the same way

(119) Why is it difficult to classify welding processes based on the type of joint produced?

(a) Because the joints vary in strength
(b) Because the same type of joint can be produced by different welding processes
(c) Because joint types are rarely used in welding
(d) Because joint classification is outdated
(Ans) Because the same type of joint can be produced by different welding processes

(120) What is the primary source of heat in arc welding processes?

(a) Friction
(b) Laser
(c) An electric arc
(d) Chemical reactions
(Ans) An electric arc

(121) What is the primary purpose of the electrode core in the Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW) process?

(a) To provide shielding gas
(b) To conduct electric current and supply filler metal
(c) To cool the molten metal
(d) To regulate the heat of the arc
(Ans) To conduct electric current and supply filler metal

(122) What is the main function of the electrode covering in the Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW) process?

(a) To prevent overheating of the base metal
(b) To create a solid weld without filler metal
(c) To provide arc stability and shield the molten metal from the atmosphere
(d) To increase the melting temperature of the metal
(Ans) To provide arc stability and shield the molten metal from the atmosphere

(123) How does the shielding in the Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW) process affect the weld metal?

(a) It determines the melting temperature of the base metal
(b) It controls the mechanical properties, chemical composition, and metallurgical structure of the weld
(c) It regulates the speed of the welding process
(d) It prevents the need for filler metal in the weld
(Ans) It controls the mechanical properties, chemical composition, and metallurgical structure of the weld

(124) In Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW), what role does the heat of the arc play?

(a) It cools the base metal
(b) It melts both the base metal and the tip of the consumable electrode
(c) It only melts the electrode
(d) It shields the metal from atmospheric gases
(Ans) It melts both the base metal and the tip of the consumable electrode

(125) What components are part of the electric circuit in the Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW) process?

(a) The power source, shielding gas, and filler rod
(b) The power source, welding cables, electrode holder, workpiece, and electrode
(c) The power source, flux, and cooling system
(d) The power source, plasma gas, and wire feed system
(Ans) The power source, welding cables, electrode holder, workpiece, and electrode

(126) How does filler metal get deposited into the weld pool during Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW)?

(a) By direct application of the filler rod
(b) Through gravity alone
(c) By transfer of molten metal from the electrode tip through the arc stream
(d) By pre-heating the base metal before welding
(Ans) By transfer of molten metal from the electrode tip through the arc stream

(127) In which of the following bolt types is relative movement between workpieces prevented by ensuring a precise fit between the bolt shank and the hole?

(a) Bolts with Clearance Hole
(b) Body Fit Bolt
(c) Anti-fatigue Bolt
(d) Standard Bolt with Nut
(Ans) Body Fit Bolt

(128) Which bolt type is typically used for applications requiring a hole that is slightly larger than the bolt shank, allowing for easier alignment of the bolt in the assembly?

(a) Bolts with Clearance Hole
(b) Body Fit Bolt
(c) Anti-fatigue Bolt
(d) Rivets
(Ans) Bolts with Clearance Hole

(129) What is the key characteristic that distinguishes soldering from other metal-joining processes like welding?

(a) Heating the base metal to melting point
(b) Use of flux to prevent oxidation
(c) Melting point of the solder is lower than that of the base metal
(d) Strength of the joint is higher than welding
(Ans) Melting point of the solder is lower than that of the base metal

(130) Which of the following types of soldering should NOT be used for joints exposed to heat and vibration?

(a) Soft Soldering
(b) Brazing
(c) Silver Brazing
(d) Hard Soldering
(Ans) Soft Soldering

(131) What is the primary difference between brazing and silver brazing in terms of materials used?

(a) The temperature range
(b) The base metals being joined
(c) The filler material and flux used
(d) The use of a special welding torch
(Ans) The filler material and flux used

(132) In the nomenclature of welds, what does "throat thickness" refer to?

(a) The distance between the root and the toe of the weld
(b) The total length of the weld
(c) The depth of the heat-affected zone
(d) The width of the weld bead
(Ans) The distance between the root and the toe of the weld

(133) Which type of welding joint is most commonly used for joining sheets of metal in mufflers?

(a) Corner joint
(b) Edge joint
(c) Lap joint
(d) Butt joint
(Ans) Edge joint

(134) What happens when too much preheat is applied during the oxy-acetylene cutting process?

(a) It increases cutting speed but wastes oxygen
(b) It causes a rounded top edge and does not increase cutting speed
(c) It improves the cut by preventing oxidation
(d) It leads to a smooth, slag-free cut
(Ans) It causes a rounded top edge and does not increase cutting speed

(135) Why is oxygen applied at a higher pressure than acetylene in oxy-acetylene cutting equipment?

(a) To provide a more intense preheating flame
(b) To blow molten slag away from the cut
(c) To prevent the formation of iron oxide
(d) To make the cutting torch safer to use
(Ans) To blow molten slag away from the cut

(136) Which of the following is the main function of the additional lever in an oxy-acetylene cutting torch?

(a) To regulate the acetylene gas flow during the cutting process
(b) B To control the flow of cutting oxygen for the oxidation process
(c) To adjust the size of the flame for preheating the metal
(d) To increase the overall temperature of the flame
(Ans) B To control the flow of cutting oxygen for the oxidation process

(137) What is the reason non-ferrous metals cannot be cut using the oxy-acetylene cutting process?

(a) They have a lower melting point than ferrous metals
(b) They do not react with oxygen in the same way as ferrous metals
(c) They produce toxic fumes when cut with oxy-acetylene
(d) Their oxides are too volatile to be blown away by oxygen
(Ans) They do not react with oxygen in the same way as ferrous metals

(138) What is the typical appearance of a poor-quality bevel cut caused by excessive speed or inadequate preheat flames?

(a) Smooth and slag-free cut surface
(b) Rounded top edge with gouges along the cut
(c) Beaded top edge with vertical drag lines
(d) Slightly inclined drag lines but a clean top edge
(Ans) Rounded top edge with gouges along the cut

(139) What defect occurs when the cutting oxygen pressure is too high during oxy-acetylene cutting?

(a) Pressure marks and gouges form on the cut face
(b) The preheating flame becomes unstable
(c) The top edge of the metal melts completely
(d) The cutting speed increases, but the cut quality decreases
(Ans) Pressure marks and gouges form on the cut face

(140) What type of rivet is driven manually with hammers?

(a) Shop rivet
(b) Field rivet
(c) Power-driven rivet
(d) Hand-driven rivet
(Ans) Hand-driven rivet

(141) Which type of rivet is allowed higher stresses in steel structures?

(a) Field rivet
(b) Hand-driven rivet
(c) Power-driven rivet
(d) Nominal rivet
(Ans) Power-driven rivet

(142) Which type of rivet failure is caused by insufficient edge distance from the centre of a rivet to the plate edge?

(a) Tensile failure of rivets
(b) Shearing of rivets
(c) Bearing shearing or splitting at the edges
(d) Bending failure
(Ans) Bearing shearing or splitting at the edges

(143) What is the main purpose of welding testing methods?

(a) To increase the cost of production
(b) To improve the appearance of the welds
(c) To ensure the weld quality and structural integrity
(d) To reduce welding time
(Ans) To ensure the weld quality and structural integrity

(144) In the guided bend test, what is the role of the hydraulic jack’s plunger?

(a) It measures the thickness of the specimen
(b) It forces the specimen into the die for bending
(c) It applies acid to the weld
(d) It tests the hardness of the specimen
(Ans) It forces the specimen into the die for bending

(145) What types of acid solutions are used in the acid etch test for carbon and low alloy steel?

(a) Hydrochloric acid, ammonium persulfate, nitric acid, iodine, potassium iodide
(b) Sulfuric acid, acetic acid, potassium hydroxide, calcium carbonate
(c) Nitric acid, sulfuric acid, potassium nitrate, calcium hydroxide
(d) Hydrochloric acid, sulfuric acid, nitric acid, sodium chloride
(Ans) Hydrochloric acid, ammonium persulfate, nitric acid, iodine, potassium iodide

(146) Which test is designed to judge the ductility of the weld metal?

(a) Nick break test
(b) Back bend test
(c) Free bend test
(d) Fillet weld break test
(Ans) Free bend test

(147) What is the minimum percentage of elongation required to pass the free bend test?

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
(Ans) 15%

(148) In the nick break test, what is the maximum allowed dimension for gas pockets in the weld?

(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 1.6 mm
(c) 2.0 mm
(d) 2.5 mm
(Ans) 1.6 mm

(149) Which of the following tests is often substituted by the guided bend test when appropriate equipment is available?

(a) Free bend test
(b) Nick break test
(c) Back bend test
(d) Fillet weld break test
(Ans) Free bend test

(150) Why does the Gamma-Ray Test require a longer exposure time compared to X-ray testing?

(a) Gamma rays are less penetrating than X-rays
(b) Gamma rays are produced at a slower rate than X-rays
(c) Gamma rays do not require any exposure time
(d) D Gamma rays are only used for surface tests
(Ans) Gamma rays are produced at a slower rate than X-rays

(151) What are the two types of dye used in the Fluorescent Penetrant Dye Test?

(a) Type A and Type B
(b) Type X and Type Y
(c) Type 1 and Type 2
(d) Type N and Type M
(Ans) Type A and Type B

(152) What is a disadvantage of the Fluorescent Penetrant Dye Test?

(a) It is not effective for magnetic materials
(b) It is a costly testing method
(c) It requires extensive training to interpret results
(d) It may miss defects located beneath the surface
(Ans) It may miss defects located beneath the surface

(153) How is the Rockwell hardness value expressed, and what do the prefixes (like "B" or "C") indicate?

(a) As a numerical value only; prefixes indicate the material type
(b) As a percentage of material strength; prefixes indicate testing duration
(c) C As an arbitrary number; prefixes indicate the size of the indentor and the load used
(d) As a decimal value; prefixes indicate the testing environment
(Ans) C As an arbitrary number; prefixes indicate the size of the indentor and the load used

(154) What is the primary purpose of the Magnaflux Test?

(a) To measure the tensile strength of the weld
(b) To detect defects at or near the surface of ferromagnetic materials
(c) To measure the temperature of the weld
(d) To assess the ductility of the weld metal
(Ans) To detect defects at or near the surface of ferromagnetic materials

(155) Which principle is used in the Electromagnetic Eddy Current Testing?

(a) Sound wave propagation
(b) Resistance to indentation
(c) Induction of electric current in a conductor due to changing magnetic fields
(d) Chemical reactions in the metal
(Ans) Induction of electric current in a conductor due to changing magnetic fields

(156) What is the primary shielding gas used in TIG welding?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Argon
(d) Nitrogen
(Ans) Argon

(157) Which of the following metals can be welded using TIG welding?

(a) Only aluminium
(b) Only mild steel
(c) Almost all metals
(d) Only stainless steel
(Ans) Almost all metals

(158) What is a key difference between TIG welding and MIG welding?

(a) TIG welding uses a consumable electrode; MIG welding does not
(b) MIG welding uses a non-consumable electrode; TIG welding does not
(c) TIG welding requires a filler metal, while MIG welding does not
(d) TIG welding uses a non-consumable electrode; MIG welding uses a consumable electrode
(Ans) TIG welding uses a non-consumable electrode; MIG welding uses a consumable electrode

(159) Why is the control of heat input critical in TIG welding, particularly for stainless steel?

(a) It reduces the overall welding time
(b) It prevents the tungsten electrode from melting
(c) It avoids carbon precipitation that can damage corrosion resistance
(d) It ensures the filler metal is used effectively
(Ans) It avoids carbon precipitation that can damage corrosion resistance

(160) Which one of the following is NOT a challenge associated with welding of dissimilar materials?

(a) High residual stress
(b) Metallurgical incompatibility
(c) Complex mechanical properties
(d) Brittle phase formation
(Ans) Complex mechanical properties

(161) What is the composition of the most widely used 7-4 PH stainless steel?

(a) Aluminium and Titanium (Al-Ti)
(b) Aluminium and Niobium (Al- Nb)
(c) Copper and Titanium (Cu-Ti)
(d) Copper and Niobium (Cu-Nb)
(Ans) Copper and Niobium (Cu-Nb)

(162) What type of welding uses wheels as electrodes?

(a) Seam welding
(b) Spot Welding
(c) Flash welding
(d) Butt resistance welding
(Ans) Seam welding

(163) Why is preheating important in the hot welding process of cast iron?

(a) It prevents the metal from melting
(b) It slows down the cooling speed and helps avoid cracks
(c) It allows faster cooling
(d) It removes all impurities from the cast iron
(Ans) It slows down the cooling speed and helps avoid cracks

(164) What is one of the challenges when performing repair welding on cast iron?

(a) Cast iron has high elasticity
(b) Overhead welding is easy to perform on cast iron
(c) Cast iron becomes brittle under welding stress and may crack during rapid cooling
(d) Cast iron has low carbon content, making it difficult to weld
(Ans) Cast iron becomes brittle under welding stress and may crack during rapid cooling

(165) Which of the following elements is often added during the cast iron welding process to increase graphitization capacity and enhance austenite formation?

(a) Silicon
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Nickel (Ni)
(d) Manganese
(Ans) Nickel (Ni)

(166) What happens if the incorrect welding materials are used during the repair welding process of cast iron?

(a) The weld will be stronger than the original cast iron
(b) The weld may develop cracks and a white structure known as "white mouth"
(c) The cast iron will melt completely
(d) The welding will create excess spatter
(Ans) The weld may develop cracks and a white structure known as "white mouth"

(167) What is the primary cause of brittleness and likelihood of cracking in cast iron during welding?

(a) Low ductility
(b) High plasticity
(c) Low carbon content
(d) High tensile strength
(Ans) Low ductility

(168) What is the shape of a T-Square?

(a) L
(b) T
(c) I
(d) X
(Ans) T

(169) What is the primary purpose of a drafting machine?

(a) To eliminate the need for a T-square, set-square, scale, and protractor
(b) To divide lines into equal parts
(c) To draw circles
(d) To sharpen pencils
(Ans) To eliminate the need for a T-square, set-square, scale, and protractor

(170) What should be avoided when bevelling edges for welding?

(a) Sharp edges
(b) Root gap
(c) Tack welding
(d) Cleaning with a wire brush
(Ans) Sharp edges

(171) What is the purpose of using a thermochalk in welding?

(a) To check the weld quality
(b) To maintain the proper root gap
(c) To check the preheating temperature
(d) To measure the weld dimensions
(Ans) To check the preheating temperature

(172) In freehand sketching, why is it important to maintain proportionality even though the drawing is not to scale?

(a) To make the drawing look realistic
(b) To meet dimensional accuracy
(c) To avoid using a scale
(d) To reduce drawing time
(Ans) To make the drawing look realistic

(173) What is the main reason for post-heating a cast iron joint after welding?

(a) To melt any remaining slag
(b) To allow the job to cool faster
(c) To prevent cracking in the joint
(d) To ensure proper electrode penetration
(Ans) To prevent cracking in the joint

(174) What is the term for a dimension essential to the function of the component?

(a) Non-functional dimension
(b) Auxiliary dimension
(c) Functional dimension
(d) Location dimension
(Ans) Functional dimension

(175) What is the standard colour for the acetylene hose in gas welding equipment?

(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Red
(Ans) Red

(176) What is the function of a flux in gas welding?

(a) To heat the metal
(b) To control the flame
(c) To remove impurities and oxides
(d) To increase the temperature
(Ans) To remove impurities and oxides

(177) Why is acetylene stored in cylinders dissolved in acetone?

(a) To increase its volume
(b) To prevent explosive decomposition
(c) To lower its temperature
(d) To increase its burning speed
(Ans) To prevent explosive decomposition

(178) What should be worn to protect the eyes of the operator during gas welding?

(a) Mask
(b) Goggles with coloured glasses
(c) Helmet
(d) Face shield
(Ans) Goggles with coloured glasses

(179) What is the purpose of a pressure regulator in gas welding?

(a) To mix gases in the correct ratio
(b) To reduce source pressure and maintain constant pressure
(c) To ignite the flame
(d) To control the flow of gas through the hose
(Ans) To reduce source pressure and maintain constant pressure

(180) What happens when the workpiece is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode to the negative terminal in arc welding?

(a) Reverse polarity
(b) Straight polarity
(c) Alternating current
(d) No polarity
(Ans) Straight polarity

(181) Which type of arc welding electrode can both provide heat and act as a filler rod?

(a) Consumable electrode
(b) Non-consumable electrode
(c) Tungsten electrode
(d) Carbon electrode
(Ans) Consumable electrode

(182) What is the function of slag in arc welding?

(a) Increase the arc temperature
(b) Protect the weld pool from contamination
(c) Melt the base metal
(d) Speed up the cooling process
(Ans) Protect the weld pool from contamination

(183) In which welding process is the arc completely submerged in a granulated material acting as a flux?

(a) Plasma arc welding
(b) Submerged arc welding
(c) Tungsten inert gas welding
(d) Metal inert gas welding
(Ans) Submerged arc welding

(184) Why is straight polarity sometimes used in arc welding?

(a) To make the electrode last longer
(b) To improve arc stability
(c) To concentrate more heat at the workpiece
(d) To reduce slag formation
(Ans) To concentrate more heat at the workpiece

(185) What is the key advantage of using tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding for non-ferrous metals?

(a) Higher welding speed
(b) High-quality welds and minimal cleaning required
(c) Cheaper equipment costs
(d) Uses consumable electrodes for faster welding
(Ans) High-quality welds and minimal cleaning required

(186) Which welding method is suitable for dissimilar metals with a large difference in melting points?

(a) Gas welding
(b) TIG welding
(c) Spot welding
(d) Arc welding
(Ans) TIG welding

(187) What is the primary problem associated with welding dissimilar metals?

(a) Similar melting points
(b) Formation of inter-metallic compounds
(c) Higher tensile strength
(d) Increased weld-bonding
(Ans) Formation of inter-metallic compounds

(188) In which of the following year was the first industrial policy of Madhya Pradesh announced?

(a) 1972
(b) 1982
(c) 1990
(d) 2000
(Ans) 1972

(189) In August 2024, NPCI introduced BBPS for Business, UPI Circle to boost digital payments, what does the first ‘B’ in BBPS stands for?

(a) Bharat
(b) Business
(c) Bills
(d) Blue Print
(Ans) Bharat

(190) International Literacy Day is celebrated every year on?

(a) 7 September
(b) 8 September
(c) 9 September
(d) 10 September
(Ans) 8 September

(191) Mobile World Congress 2024 was organized in which of the following country?

(a) Russia
(b) Singapore
(c) Spain
(d) India
(Ans) Spain

(192) The government of which of the following state has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the World Trade Centres’ Association for the creation of a World Trade Centre in September 2024?

(a) Telangana
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(Ans) Telangana

(193) Mullayanagiri is the highest peak in _______.

(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan
(Ans) Karnataka

(194) Which of these can cause acid rain?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
(Ans) Sulphur dioxide

(195) What is the phenomenon which established the transverse nature of light?

(a) Reflection
(b) Interference
(c) Diffraction
(d) Polarisation
(Ans) Polarisation

(196) A freely suspended bar magnet always comes to rest in a particular direction, which is the ______ direction.

(a) North- South
(b) East-West
(c) Northwest-Southeast
(d) Northeast-Southwest
(Ans) North- South

(197) What is the use of the 'Track Changes' feature in MS Word?

(a) To change the font style
(b) To track modifications made to a document
(c) To insert image/jpgs
(d) To adjust page layout
(Ans) To track modifications made to a document

(198) Which of the following is an example of an input device commonly used for pointing and selecting objects on the screen?

(a) Scanner
(b) Printer
(c) Mouse
(d) Projector
(Ans) Mouse

(199) Which of the following is an example of an input device commonly used for pointing and selecting objects on the screen?

(a) Scanner
(b) Printer
(c) Mouse
(d) Projector
(Ans) Mouse

(200) Which of the following is considered the "brain" of the computer?

(a) Monitor
(b) CPU (Central Processing Unit)
(c) Keyboard
(d) Mouse
(Ans) CPU (Central Processing Unit)

(201) What is the purpose of a 'USB Flash Drive'?

(a) To print documents
(b) To store and transfer data
(c) To display image/jpgs
(d) To enhance sound
(Ans) To store and transfer data

(202) What does the acronym "OOP" stand for in programming?

(a) Object-Oriented Programming
(b) Object-Oriented Protocol
(c) Operator-Overloaded Programming
(d) Operating Optimization Process
(Ans) Object-Oriented Programming

(203) Which of the following device is commonly used to capture image/jpgs and videos?

(a) Camera
(b) Monitor
(c) Printer
(d) Speaker
(Ans) Camera

(204) In a certain code, GYM is coded as 2275,then how is KIT coded in the same way?

(a) 1960
(b) 1950
(c) 1970
(d) 1980
(Ans) 1980

(205) In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term are a rearranged/ transformed form of the letters in the first term in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done in the same way? A. LAWYER : MBXZFS B. TICKET : UJDLFU C. GARAGE : GAGARE D. CALLER : ALLCER E. PLANET : NETATP

(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) D and A
(Ans) A and B

(206) Find the missing number in a series given below: 21, 57, 32, 48, 39, ?

(a) 45
(b) 43
(c) 55
(d) 54
(Ans) 43

(207) Find the missing term in the following series.MVPP, NUSS, OTVV, PSYY, ?

(a) QVZZ
(b) QRXX
(c) QRZZ
(d) QRBB
(Ans) QRBB

(208) Find the next term of the given series ZYXWVUTZYXWVUZYXWVZYXW?

(a) V
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) U
(Ans) Z

(209) Age of Vidya is 60 year and age of Vinay is 40 year. How many years ago ratio of their age was 5:3?

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 25
(Ans) 10

(210) If Raman pays a total of Rs 5500 to their employee’s Arun and Varun per week. If Arun is paid 20% more than the amount paid to Varun. How much Varun is paid per week?

(a) Rs.1500
(b) Rs.2000
(c) Rs.2500
(d) Rs.3000
(Ans) Rs.2500

(211) The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum for 2 year at 20% per annum is Rs 200. If the interest is compounded half yearly,then what is the difference (in rupees) between compound and simple interest for 1st year?

(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 150
(Ans) 50

(212) What determines the accuracy of a vernier scale in measurement?

(a) The length of the sliding scale
(b) The number of divisions on the main scale
(c) The difference between one main scale and one sliding scale division
(d) The width of the main scale
(Ans) The difference between one main scale and one sliding scale division

(213) Which instrument was invented by William Gascirgne?

(a) Micrometer
(b) Vernier Calliper
(c) Dial bore gauge
(d) Telescope gauge
(Ans) Micrometer

(214) What makes a feeler gauge ideal for measuring gaps in tight spaces?

(a) It uses digital readouts
(b) It provides a laser measurement
(c) It measures electrical resistance
(d) It fits into narrow spaces with metal strips
(Ans) It fits into narrow spaces with metal strips

(215) What is the pitch diameter of a screw thread?

(a) The outer diameter of the screw
(b) The inner core diameter of the screw
(c) The diameter of an imaginary cylinder where thread width equals space width
(d) The diameter at the tip of the screw threads
(Ans) The diameter of an imaginary cylinder where thread width equals space width

(216) Which of the following represents the purpose of the caliper?

(a) It transfers force from expanding gas in the cylinder to the crankshaft
(b) It measures the distance between two opposite sides of an object
(c) Accurately measures small distances
(d) Used for depth measurements
(Ans) Used for depth measurements

(217) What is the primary use of a spring compressor in auto repairs?

(a) To remove engine parts
(b) To compress suspension springs
(c) To measure tire pressure
(d) To tighten bolts and nuts
(Ans) To compress suspension springs

(218) What is the primary function of a connecting rod alignment fixture?

(a) To demonstrate electrical systems
(b) To compress suspension springs
(c) To check the straightness of connecting rods
(d) To measure engine oil levels
(Ans) To check the straightness of connecting rods

(219) Which type of drilling machine is specifically designed for handling large and heavy workpieces?

(a) Bench drilling machine
(b) Pillar drilling machine
(c) Radial arm drilling machine
(d) Column drilling machine
(Ans) Radial arm drilling machine

(220) What is the primary objective of the National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project (NATRIP) in India?

(a) To reduce automotive production costs
(b) To create state-of-the-art testing and R&D infrastructure
(c) To eliminate all automotive regulations
(d) To replace foreign automotive brands
(Ans) To create state-of-the-art testing and R&D infrastructure

(221) What is the primary goal of the Automotive Research Association of India (ARAI) regarding its international services?

(a) To focus exclusively on local automotive industry standards
(b) To achieve international recognition and meet global industry requirements
(c) To limit its services to design and development only
(d) To provide automotive services without customer satisfaction focus
(Ans) To achieve international recognition and meet global industry requirements

(222) What component in an automatic transmission system allows for the automatic shifting of gears?

(a) Differential gear
(b) Torque converter
(c) Manual gearbox
(d) Drive shaft
(Ans) Torque converter

(223) What is the primary advantage of using an engine hoist with hydraulic pressure compared to a block and tackle system?

(a) Requires more manual effort to lift the engine
(b) Uses compressed air for lifting instead of hydraulic pressure
(c) Converts power to a mechanical advantage, lifting with less effort
(d) Operates slower than a pneumatic jack
(Ans) Converts power to a mechanical advantage, lifting with less effort

(224) What is the primary purpose of a jack in vehicle maintenance?

(a) To clean the vehicle's interior
(b) To lift and hold the vehicle during repairs
(c) To check the vehicle's engine performance
(d) To enhance the vehicle's fuel efficiency
(Ans) To lift and hold the vehicle during repairs

(225) Which of the following engines burns fuel and conducts combustion inside the cylinder?

(a) Diesel Engine
(b) Jet Engine
(c) Electric Motor
(d) Steam Engine
(Ans) Jet Engine

(226) Which of the following accurately describes the operation of a centrifugal water pump in an engine?

(a) The impeller draws water from the engine block and pumps it to the radiator
(b) B The water pump is driven by the crankshaft pulley through the fan belt
(c) The shaft of the water pump is mounted in the radiator with seals to prevent leakage
(d) The fan is mounted on the water pump's shaft to increase water pressure
(Ans) B The water pump is driven by the crankshaft pulley through the fan belt

(227) In the wax pellet type of temperature-controlled valve, what role does the wax pellet play?

(a) It provides mechanical support to the spring
(b) It expands to open the valve when the water temperature is high
(c) It cools down the circulating water to maintain low temperatures
(d) It maintains the closed position of the valve until water cools
(Ans) It expands to open the valve when the water temperature is high

(228) Which of the following is an essential property of a coolant in an engine?

(a) Should remove heat at a slow rate when the engine is hot
(b) Should not remove too much heat to avoid reducing thermal efficiency
(c) Should prevent frequency and rust formations
(d) Should deposit foreign matter in the water jackets/radiator
(Ans) Should not remove too much heat to avoid reducing thermal efficiency

(229) Which of the following describes the petrol-oil lubricating system used in two-stroke engines?

(a) Oil is mixed with petrol in a 20:1 ratio for lubrication
(b) Petrol and oil are mixed in a 10:1 ratio, providing lubrication
(c) Petrol-oil mixture is used, with a 20:1 ratio, to lubricate moving parts
(d) Oil is applied manually to the crankcase without mixing with petrol
(Ans) Petrol-oil mixture is used, with a 20:1 ratio, to lubricate moving parts

(230) Which type of engine balance ensures that power impulses occur at regular intervals and each impulse exerts the same force?

(a) Static Balance
(b) Dynamic Balance
(c) Power Balance
(d) Mechanical Balance
(Ans) Power Balance

(231) What is a primary function of the flywheel in an engine?

(a) To increase engine temperature during idling
(b) To store energy during the power stroke and supply it during idling
(c) To filter impurities from the fuel system
(d) To control the engine's fuel mixture
(Ans) To store energy during the power stroke and supply it during idling

(232) What is the primary function of a vibration damper fixed to the front end of a crankshaft?

(a) Increase engine power output
(b) Reduce torsional vibrations and stress
(c) Enhance fuel efficiency
(d) Improve exhaust emission control
(Ans) Reduce torsional vibrations and stress

(233) In a timing gear drive system where the camshaft rotates at half the speed of the crankshaft, which statement is true?

(a) The camshaft gear has half the number of teeth as the crankshaft gear
(b) The crankshaft gear rotates in the opposite direction to the camshaft gear
(c) An idler gear can make the camshaft and crankshaft rotate in the same direction
(d) Timing marks on the camshaft and crankshaft should be misaligned after overhauling
(Ans) An idler gear can make the camshaft and crankshaft rotate in the same direction

(234) Which factor affects the torque transmission capability of a multi-plate clutch?

(a) Size of the engine
(b) Contact area of the clutch plate
(c) Vehicle color
(d) Fuel type
(Ans) Contact area of the clutch plate

(235) In a single plate clutch system, what component is responsible for pressing the clutch plate against the flywheel?

(a) Release Bearing
(b) Pressure Plate
(c) Clutch Plate Hub
(d) Clutch Cover
(Ans) Pressure Plate

(236) Which functional requirement of an injection system ensures that the engine's speed and load demands are met by adjusting the fuel quantity?

(a) Proper control of the rate of injection
(b) Accurate metering of fuel per cycle
(c) Proper atomization of fuel droplets
(d) Uniform distribution of fuel droplets
(Ans) Accurate metering of fuel per cycle

(237) What is the primary purpose of achieving proper atomization of fuel in an injection system?

(a) To ensure rapid mixing of fuel and air
(b) To control the rate of heat release during combustion
(c) To uniformly distribute fuel in the chamber
(d) To adjust fuel quantity per cycle
(Ans) To ensure rapid mixing of fuel and air

(238) Which of the following is a key reason why the air injection system is considered obsolete?

(a) Inability to handle high-viscosity fuels
(b) High cost of multistage air compressors
(c) Poor mixing of fuel with air
(d) Low mean effective pressure
(Ans) High cost of multistage air compressors

(239) What advantage does the air injection system offer in CI engines?

(a) Improved use of low-viscosity fuels
(b) Lower mean effective pressure
(c) Efficient mixing of fuel with air
(d) Reduced need for fuel atomization
(Ans) Efficient mixing of fuel with air

(240) Which of the following is a key characteristic of a solid injection system?

(a) Liquid fuel is mixed with compressed air before injection
(b) Liquid fuel is injected directly into the combustion chamber without air assistance
(c) Solid fuel is injected into the chamber with air
(d) Liquid fuel is atomized using compressed air
(Ans) Liquid fuel is injected directly into the combustion chamber without air assistance

(241) In an Individual Pump and Nozzle System, what mechanism is responsible for actuating the high-pressure pump plunger to produce fuel pressure for injector operation?

(a) Hydraulic piston
(b) Electric solenoid
(c) Mechanical cam
(d) Pneumatic actuator
(Ans) Mechanical cam

(242) Which government body is responsible for setting the timeline and standards for Bharat stage emission norms?

(a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
(b) Central Pollution Control Board
(c) National Green Tribunal
(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries
(Ans) Central Pollution Control Board

(243) What is the primary function of the purge valve in the Evaporation Emission Control (EVAP) system?

(a) To prevent fuel vapors from escaping into the atmosphere
(b) To route fuel vapors back to the fuel tank
(c) To release stored vapors into the intake manifold for combustion
(d) To cool down the engine during operation
(Ans) To release stored vapors into the intake manifold for combustion

(244) What is one potential downside of using low-sulfur diesel fuel, despite its environmental benefits?

(a) Increased exhaust emissions
(b) Higher fuel consumption
(c) Reduced fuel lubricity
(d) Decreased combustion efficiency
(Ans) Reduced fuel lubricity

(245) What is the primary function of a starter motor in an engine?

(a) To charge the engine's battery
(b) To rotate the flywheel during engine cranking
(c) To increase fuel efficiency
(d) To monitor engine temperature
(Ans) To rotate the flywheel during engine cranking

(246) What is the remedy for a starter motor's armature short-circuit issue?

(a) Replace the solenoid
(b) Tighten the loose connection
(c) Rewind or replace the armature
(d) Replace the carbon brush
(Ans) Rewind or replace the armature

(247) If the carbon brush spring tension is weak, what action should be taken?

(a) Clean the contact points
(b) Replace the spring
(c) Tighten the mounting
(d) Rewind the field winding
(Ans) Replace the spring

(248) What is the most likely remedy for an engine malfunction caused by poor valve seating?

(a) Replace the fuel filter
(b) Repair the valve seating
(c) Recharge the battery
(d) Clean clogged exhaust ports
(Ans) Repair the valve seating

(249) Which of the following issues is most likely to be resolved by replacing the starting relay?

(a) Air lock in the fuel system
(b) Main fuse blown off
(c) Defective brushes in starter
(d) Defective starting relay
(Ans) Defective starting relay

(250) What is the most likely cause of engine performance issues if compression is weak?

(a) Clogged air filter
(b) Injector defective
(c) Valve improper seating
(d) Piston or liner wear
(Ans) Piston or liner wear

(251) What is the most likely cause of engine performance issues if compression is weak?

(a) Clogged air filter
(b) Injector defective
(c) Valve improper seating
(d) Piston or liner wear
(Ans) Piston or liner wear

(252) If the engine's idle speed is unstable, which adjustment should be made to correct it?

(a) Adjust valve clearance
(b) Set proper injection timing
(c) Adjust idle speed screw
(d) Overhaul fuel pump
(Ans) Adjust idle speed screw

(253) What is the primary function of a voltage regulator in a vehicle's charging system?

(a) To increase battery capacity
(b) To maintain a constant voltage level
(c) To charge the battery faster
(d) To power the headlights
(Ans) To maintain a constant voltage level

(254) Which of the following factors does NOT influence the friction between the two surfaces in a clutch?

(a) Area of the surfaces
(b) Coefficient of friction of the materials
(c) Temperature of the environment
(d) Pressure applied on the surfaces
(Ans) Temperature of the environment

(255) What is the primary purpose of a clutch in a vehicle's transmission system?

(a) To increase engine speed
(b) To synchronize gear speeds during shifting
(c) To reduce fuel consumption
(d) To maintain constant power transmission
(Ans) To synchronize gear speeds during shifting

(256) Which of the following statements accurately describes the advantages of hydraulic clutch actuation compared to mechanical actuation?

(a) It requires more pedal effort for engagement.
(b) It has increased maintenance needs.
(c) It offers smoother engagement with less pedal effort.
(d) It is more complex and harder to repair.
(Ans) It offers smoother engagement with less pedal effort.

(257) What is the primary purpose of rubber spring attachment in Weweller suspension systems used in commercial passenger vehicles?

(a) To increase the weight-carrying capacity of the vehicle
(b) To prevent metal-to-metal contact and absorb shocks
(c) To improve the fuel efficiency of the vehicle
(d) To reduce the manufacturing cost of the suspension system
(Ans) To prevent metal-to-metal contact and absorb shocks